Andrews Post #3

Andrews post #3

Do you believe that the popularity of telenovelas with the Hispanic market in the USA is an example of "reverse media imperialism"?


I am pleased that this is a question suggestion for the blog posts, because this is very phrase is one, which stood out to me. It seemed a bit aggrandizing in favor of the Hispanic market, relating specifically to the markets in America. I understand that telenolevlas has become a well-globalized product, as mentioned in class.
It seems that in order for a phenomenon to be considered as havening a “reverse cultural imperialism” effect it would need to be more pervading. If the topic were considered from the inverse by looking for definite examples of cultural imperialism, One would see that, In order for cultural imperialism to exist there are several factors needed. First would be an imposition of a more powerful nation or culture, the effects of that imposition, as well at a loss of the native culture, which has been over run. There tends to be more encompassing effects. Where as with the suggestion that telenovelas is a “reverse cultural imperialism ” effect it is still a sub cultural, which exists aside from the main stream. To employ Acoms Razor, what is the simplest answer? It seems, that the phenomena in question is still a simple one, largely limited to a sub culture. There is no doubt it is grown and continues to do so but, it is as of yet, subordinate. To conclude, I don’t find the popularity of Telenolevas to yet be an example “Reverse cultural imperialism”.